Earth and Space Science Study Guide

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____	1.	Which of the following is NOT one of the main areas of Earth science?
a.	geology	c.	astrology	
b.	oceanography	d.	astronomy	

____	2.	What is the study of the atmosphere and the processes that produce weather and climate?
a.	oceanography	c.	meteorology	
b.	geology	d.	astronomy	

____	3.	The distance, measured in degrees, north and south of the equator is referred to as ____.
a.	longitude	c.	the prime meridian	
b.	latitude	d.	the poles	

____	4.	The most abundant element in Earth’s continental crust (by weight) is ____.
a.	oxygen	c.	calcium	
b.	silicon	d.	iron	

____	5.	The central region of an atom is called the ____.
a.	proton	c.	nucleus	
b.	electron	d.	neutron	

____	6.	The smallest particle of an element that still retains all the element’s properties is a(n) ____.
a.	compound	c.	isotope	
b.	atom	d.	mineral	

____	7.	An atom that loses or gains electrons is called a(n) ____.
a.	isotope	c.	neutron	
b.	proton	d.	ion	

____	8.	Which subatomic particles are most involved in chemical bonding?
a.	protons	c.	neutrons	
b.	electrons	d.	isotopes	

____	9.	The main types of chemical bonds are ____.
a.	ionic, covalent, and metallic	c.	isotopic, covalent, and metallic	
b.	ionic, compound, and metallic	d.	ionic, covalent, and nonmetallic	

____	10.	What is a naturally occurring, inorganic solid with an orderly crystalline structure and a definite chemical composition?
a.	a mineral	c.	an isotope	
b.	an element	d.	a compound	

____	11.	The most common mineral group in Earth’s crust is the ____.
a.	oxides	c.	sulfides	
b.	carbonates	d.	silicates	

____	12.	The appearance or quality of light reflected from the surface of a mineral is called ____.
a.	streak	c.	cleavage	
b.	color	d.	luster	

____	13.	The resistance of a mineral to being scratched is called ____.
a.	streak	c.	hardness	
b.	fracture	d.	cleavage	

____	14.	The color of the powdered form of a mineral is called ____.
a.	cleavage	c.	luster	
b.	streak	d.	fracture	

____	15.	Mohs scale is used to determine what property of minerals?
a.	cleavage	c.	hardness	
b.	density	d.	luster	

____	16.	The tendency of minerals to break along smooth flat surfaces is called ____.
a.	fracture	c.	streak	
b.	cleavage	d.	crystal form	

____	17.	What is the uneven breakage of a mineral called?
a.	fracture	c.	crystal form	
b.	cleavage	d.	hardness	

____	18.	In Figure 3-1, what type of rock should occur in the part of the rock cycle labeled B?
a.	igneous	c.	lava	
b.	metamorphic	d.	sedimentary	

____	19.	In Figure 3-1, what process or processes would be occurring in the part of the rock cycle labeled E?
a.	cooling	c.	compaction and cementation	
b.	melting	d.	weathering and erosion	

____	20.	In Figure 3-1, what type of rock should occur in the part of the rock cycle labeled F?
a.	igneous	c.	lava	
b.	metamorphic 	d.	sedimentary	

____	21.	If granite undergoes high temperatures and high pressures at depth within Earth, what type of rock will be formed? Assume that the granite does not melt.
a.	a sedimentary rock	c.	magma	
b.	a metamorphic rock	d.	an igneous rock	

____	22.	Fossils are only found in ____.
a.	intrusive igneous rocks	c.	sedimentary rocks	
b.	foliated metamorphic rocks	d.	nonfoliated metamorphic rocks	

____	23.	The process that occurs when physical forces break rock into smaller pieces without changing the rock’s chemical composition is called ____.
a.	differential weathering	c.	mechanical weathering	
b.	chemical weathering	d.	erosion	

____	24.	When water freezes, its volume ____.
a.	decreases slightly	c.	stays the same	
b.	increases	d.	decreases greatly	

____	25.	Wegener’s continental drift hypothesis stated that all the continents once joined together to form ____.
a.	two major supercontinents	
b.	two major supercontinents and three smaller continents	
c.	one major supercontinent	
d.	three major supercontinents	

____	26.	The supercontinent in the continental drift hypothesis was called ____.
a.	Panthalassa	c.	Mesosaurus	
b.	Pangaea	d.	Africa	

____	27.	What hypothesis states that the continents were once joined to form a single supercontinent?
a.	plate tectonics	c.	continental drift	
b.	seafloor spreading	d.	paleomagnetism	

____	28.	What type of volcano is built almost entirely from ejected lava fragments?
a.	cinder cone	c.	shield volcano	
b.	composite cone	d.	pahoehoe volcano	

____	29.	The broad, slightly dome-shaped volcanoes of Hawaii are ____.
a.	composite cone volcanoes	c.	pyroclastic volcanoes	
b.	shield volcanoes	d.	cinder cone volcanoes	

____	30.	A volcano that is fairly symmetrical and has both layers of lava and pyroclastic deposits is a ____.
a.	cinder cone volcano	c.	pyroclastic volcano	
b.	shield volcano	d.	composite cone volcano	

____	31.	What is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere?
a.	oxygen	c.	carbon dioxide	
b.	nitrogen	d.	hydrogen	

____	32.	The form of oxygen that combines three oxygen atoms into each molecule is called ____.
a.	argon	c.	chlorofluorocarbon	
b.	thermopause	d.	ozone	

____	33.	What is the lowest layer of the atmosphere?
a.	thermosphere	c.	stratosphere	
b.	troposphere	d.	mesosphere	

____	34.	Most important weather phenomena occur in the ____.
a.	stratosphere	c.	troposphere	
b.	mesosphere	d.	thermosphere	

____	35.	When does the summer solstice occur in the Northern Hemisphere?
a.	June 21	c.	September 21	
b.	March 21	d.	December 21	

____	36.	Which of the following is true about equinoxes?
a.	They occur in June and December.	
b.	The sun’s vertical rays are striking either 23.5S or 23.5N.	
c.	Days and nights are equal in length everywhere.	
d.	The length of daylight in the Arctic and Antarctic Circles is 24 hours.	

____	37.	Which electromagnetic waves have the longest wavelengths?
a.	radio	c.	gamma	
b.	infrared	d.	ultraviolet	

____	38.	Earth receives energy from the sun through what method of heat transfer?
a.	conduction	c.	radiation	
b.	convection	d.	none of the above	

____	39.	The two most important heat-absorbing gases in the lower atmosphere are ____.
a.	oxygen and nitrogen	c.	argon and hydrogen	
b.	ozone and chlorofluorocarbon	d.	water vapor and carbon dioxide	

____	40.	Which of the following was unknown to the ancient Greeks?
a.	Earth	c.	Venus	
b.	Mars	d.	Uranus	

____	41.	The apparent westward movement of a planet against the background of stars is called ____.
a.	retrograde motion	c.	rotation	
b.	revolution	d.	universal gravitation	

____	42.	The geocentric model of the universe stated that ____.
a.	Earth revolved around the celestial sphere	
b.	the sun was the center of the universe	
c.	Earth was a “wanderer”	
d.	Earth was the center of the universe	

____	43.	Which scientist determined the nature of the forces that keep the planets in their orbits?
a.	Copernicus	c.	Brahe	
b.	Galileo	d.	Newton	

____	44.	Which scientist was the first to use the telescope in astronomy?
a.	Newton	c.	Copernicus	
b.	Galileo	d.	Kepler	

____	45.	The true shape of planetary orbits was discovered by ____.
a.	Newton	c.	Brahe	
b.	Galileo	d.	Kepler	

____	46.	Seasons are caused by ____.
a.	Earth’s rotation	c.	Earth’s tilted axis	
b.	precession	d.	Earth’s distance from the sun	

____	47.	The moon’s period of revolution is 27 1/3 days, and its period of rotation is ____.
a.	27 1/3 days	c.	30 1/3 days	
b.	29 1/2 days	d.	33 1/2 days	

____	48.	What occurs when the moon casts its shadow on Earth?
a.	lunar eclipse	c.	sidereal month	
b.	solar eclipse	d.	synodic month	

____	49.	Round depressions on the moon’s surface are called ____.
a.	highlands	c.	craters	
b.	maria	d.	meteorites	

____	50.	Which of the following is NOT a Jovian planet?
a.	Earth	c.	Neptune	
b.	Saturn	d.	Uranus	

____	51.	Which of the following is NOT a terrestrial planet?
a.	Mercury	c.	Mars	
b.	Earth	d.	Jupiter	

____	52.	Gamma rays, X-rays, visible light, and radio waves are all types of ____.
a.	nuclear energy	c.	ultraviolet radiation	
b.	chromatic aberration	d.	electromagnetic radiation	

____	53.	The fact that light can exert a pressure on matter suggests that it is made of particles called ____.
a.	electrons	c.	photons	
b.	protons	d.	neutrons	

____	54.	The outermost layer of the sun is called the ____.
a.	ionosphere	c.	corona	
b.	photosphere	d.	chromosphere	

____	55.	What effect do solar flares have on Earth?
a.	auroras	c.	magnetic pole reversal	
b.	global warming	d.	tides	

____	56.	Stellar distances are usually expressed in what units?
a.	miles	c.	light-years	
b.	kilometers	d.	none of the above	

____	57.	Light cannot escape the intense gravitational pull of a ____.
a.	black hole	c.	main-sequence star	
b.	black dwarf	d.	red giant	

____	58.	Our galaxy is called the ____.
a.	Local Group	c.	Andromeda	
b.	Orion	d.	Milky Way	

____	59.	According to the big bang theory, the universe began about ____.
a.	4.5 billion years ago	c.	49.6 billion years ago	
b.	13.7 billion years ago	d.	130 billion years ago	

Completion
Complete each statement.

	60.	A(n) ____________________ is a solid mass of mineral or mineral-like matter that occurs naturally.

	61.	Rocks are generally classified as igneous, ____________________, or metamorphic.

	62.	Because of the processes that take place within the ____________________, rocks can change from one type to another.

	63.	A material’s ____________________ is a measure of its resistance to flow.

	64.	A cloud of dust and gas in space is called a(n) ____________________.

	65.	A meteoroid that reaches Earth’s surface is called a(n) ____________________.

	66.	Patterns of stars called ____________________ were originally named in honor of mythological characters or great heroes.

	67.	A light-year is the distance ____________________ travels in a year.

	68.	The Milky Way is classified as a(n) ____________________ galaxy.

Short Answer

	69.	What are the major erosional agents that can pick up, transport, and deposit the products of weathering?

Essay

	70.	Explain the rock cycle by describing how an igneous rock can become a sedimentary rock, then a metamorphic rock, and then an igneous rock again.

Earth and Space Science Study Guide
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

	1.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	1.1

	2.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	1.1
STA:	ESIII.II.8

	3.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	1.6

	4.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.1
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	5.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.2
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	6.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.2
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	7.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.3
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	8.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.4
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	9.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.5
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	10.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.6
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	11.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.9
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	12.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.11
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	13.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.11
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	14.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.11
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	15.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.11
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	16.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.12
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	17.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.12
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	18.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	3.3
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	19.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	3.3
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	20.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	3.3
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	21.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	3.3
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	22.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	3.10
STA:	ESIII.II.10

	23.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	5.1

	24.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	5.1

	25.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	9.1

	26.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	9.1

	27.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	9.1

	28.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	10.3

	29.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	10.3

	30.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	10.3

	31.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	17.1

	32.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	17.1

	33.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	17.1

	34.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	17.1

	35.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	17.2

	36.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	17.2

	37.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	17.4

	38.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	17.5
STA:	ESIII.II.6 | ESIII.II.8	

	39.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	17.5

	40.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	22.1

	41.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	22.2

	42.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	22.2
STA:	ESIII.I.1

	43.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	22.3

	44.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	22.3
STA:	ESIII.II.3

	45.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	22.3

	46.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	22.4

	47.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	22.5

	48.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	22.6

	49.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	22.7

	50.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	23.1
STA:	ESIII.I.1

	51.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	23.1
STA:	ESIII.I.1

	52.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	24.1
STA:	ESIII.I.5

	53.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	24.1

	54.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	24.7

	55.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	24.8
STA:	ESIII.I.5

	56.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	25.2

	57.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	25.7

	58.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	25.8

	59.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	25.11
STA:	ESIII.I.4

COMPLETION

	60.	ANS:	rock

PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	3.1	STA:	ESIII.II.10

	61.	ANS:	sedimentary

PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	3.2	STA:	ESIII.II.10

	62.	ANS:	rock cycle

PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	3.3	STA:	ESIII.II.10

	63.	ANS:	viscosity

PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	10.1

	64.	ANS:	nebula

PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	23.2	STA:	ESIII.I.1

	65.	ANS:	meteorite

PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	23.7	STA:	ESIII.I.1

	66.	ANS:	constellations

PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	25.1

	67.	ANS:	light

PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	25.2

	68.	ANS:	
spiral
barred spiral

PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	25.9

SHORT ANSWER

	69.	ANS:	
water, wind, ice, and gravity

PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	3.8

ESSAY

	70.	ANS:	
An igneous rock forms when magma or lava cools. Over time, the igneous rock is weathered into small pieces, or sediment. The sediments are eroded and deposited, and become compacted and cemented together, forming a sedimentary rock. If the sedimentary rock is subjected to intense heat and pressure, it can form a metamorphic rock. The metamorphic rock can become buried deep beneath Earth’s surface, melt to form a magma, then cool to form an igneous rock again.

PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	3.3	STA:	ESIII.II.10