Physical Science Final Exam Study Guide

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

	1.	What is a system of knowledge and the methods used to find that knowledge?
a.	science	c.	measurement	
b.	technology	d.	curiosity	

	2.	What are the building blocks of all matter?
a.	forces	c.	magnetic fields	
b.	atoms	d.	kinetic and potential energy	

	3.	In which step of the scientific method is information obtained through the senses?
a.	drawing conclusions	c.	analyzing data	
b.	making observations	d.	revising a hypothesis	

	4.	What is a statement that summarizes a pattern found in nature?
a.	a scientific law	c.	a scientific theory	
b.	a fact	d.	a hypothesis	

	5.	What is a physical or mental representation of an object or an event?
a.	a theory	c.	a model	
b.	a hypothesis	d.	a scientific law	

	6.	On the Celsius scale, at what temperature does water boil?
a.	0°	c.	100°	
b.	212°	d.	32°	

	7.	How do scientists who speak different languages make their data understandable to one another?
a.	They all use different systems of measurement.	
b.	They all use SI.	
c.	They communicate through a universal translator.	
d.	They all must speak French.	

	8.	 A substance that is made up of only one kind of atom is a(an)
a.	compound.	c.	element.	
b.	homogeneous mixture.	d.	solution.	

	9.	What is the symbol for aluminum?
a.	AL	c.	Au	
b.	Al	d.	A	

	10.	The symbol for gold is
a.	Au.	c.	Gl.	
b.	Al.	d.	Go.	

	11.	A mixture that appears to contain only one substance is a(an)
a.	homogeneous mixture.	c.	compound.	
b.	heterogeneous mixture.	d.	element.	

	12.	Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?
a.	water in a swimming pool	
b.	sugar water	
c.	a jar of mixed nuts	
d.	stainless steel	

	13.	Which of the following is malleable?
a.	glass	c.	ice	
b.	pottery	d.	gold	

	14.	A substance has a melting point of 0ºC and a boiling point of 100ºC. The substance is most likely
a.	water.	c.	gold.	
b.	hydrogen.	d.	table salt.	

	15.	A material that is malleable and conducts electricity is most likely
a.	wood.	c.	a metal.	
b.	ice.	d.	motor oil.	

	16.	Flammability is a material’s ability to burn in the presence of
a.	hydrogen.	c.	oxygen.	
b.	nitrogen.	d.	carbon dioxide.	

	17.	A gas has
a.	a definite volume but no definite shape.	
b.	a definite shape but no definite volume.	
c.	no definite shape or definite volume.	
d.	a definite volume and definite shape.	

	18.	Matter that has a definite volume but no definite shape is a
a.	liquid.	c.	gas.	
b.	solid.	d.	plasma.	

	19.	If you move a substance from one container to another and its volume changes, the substance is a
a.	solid.	c.	gas.	
b.	liquid.	d.	solution.	

	20.	What is the result of a force distributed over an area?
a.	temperature	c.	pressure	
b.	volume	d.	mass	

	21.	Raising the temperature of a gas will increase its pressure if the volume of the gas
a.	and the number of particles are increased.	
b.	is increased, but the number of particles is constant.	
c.	and the number of particles are constant.	
d.	is constant, but the number of particles is reduced.	

	22.	The law that states that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins if the pressure and the number of particles is constant is
a.	Boyle’s law.	c.	Einstein’s law.	
b.	Bose’s law.	d.	Charles’s law.	

	23.	Boyle’s law states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure if the
a.	temperature and number of particles are constant.	
b.	temperature reaches absolute zero.	
c.	number of particles decreases.	
d.	temperature and number of particles are doubled.	

	24.	If the volume of a cylinder is reduced from 8.0 liters to 4.0 liters, the pressure of the gas in the cylinder will change from 70 kilopascals to
a.	35 kilopascals.	c.	140 kilopascals.	
b.	105 kilopascals.	d.	560 kilopascals.	

	25.	During a phase change, the temperature of a substance
a.	increases.	c.	does not change.	
b.	decreases.	d.	increases or decreases.	

	26.	J. J. Thomson’s experiments provided evidence that an atom
a.	is the smallest particle of matter.	
b.	contains negatively charged particles.	
c.	has a negative charge.	
d.	has a positive charge.	

	27.	In the results of Rutherford’s gold foil experiment, what caused some of the alpha particles to bounce straight back from the gold foil?
a.	electrons in the gold atoms	c.	other alpha particles	
b.	negative charges in the gold atoms	d.	nuclei in the gold atoms	

	28.	Rutherford’s gold foil experiment provided evidence for which of the following statements?
a.	Negative and positive charges are spread evenly throughout an atom.	
b.	Alpha particles have a positive charge.	
c.	Gold is not as dense as previously thought.	
d.	There is a dense, positively charged mass in the center of an atom.	

	29.	Which subatomic particle has a negative charge?
a.	electron	c.	neutron	
b.	alpha particle	d.	proton	

	30.	The number of protons in one atom of an element is that element’s
a.	mass number.	c.	atomic number.	
b.	balanced charge.	d.	isotope.	

	31.	To find the number of neutrons in an atom, you would subtract
a.	mass number from atomic number.	c.	atomic number from electron number.	
b.	atomic number from mass number.	d.	isotope number from atomic number.	

	32.	Which list of elements contains only metals?
a.	carbon, iodine, tin	c.	helium, iron, copper	
b.	tin, copper, cesium	d.	iodine, carbon, argon	

	33.	Which of the following Group 1A elements is the most reactive?
a.	Cs (cesium)	c.	K (potassium)	
b.	Li (lithium)	d.	Na (sodium)	

	34.	In the compound MgCl2, the subscript 2 indicates that
a.	there are two magnesium ions for each ion of chlorine	
b.	the chloride ion is twice the size of the magnesium ion.	
c.	magnesium and chlorine form a double covalent bond.	
d.	there are two chloride ions for each magnesium ion.	

	35.	A passenger in the rear seat of a car moving at a steady speed is at rest relative to
a.	the side of the road.	c.	the front seat of the car.	
b.	a pedestrian on the corner ahead.	d.	the wheels of the car.	

	36.	Which distance can be most accurately measured with a ruler?
a.	the length of a river	
b.	the width of a book	
c.	the distance between two cities	
d.	the size of an object under a microscope	

	37.	One kilometer equals 1000 meters. What does the prefix kilo- mean?
a.	1	c.	100	
b.	10	d.	1000	

	38.	A person walks 1 mile every day for exercise, leaving her front porch at 9:00 am. and returning to her front porch at 9:25 am. What is the total displacement of her daily walk?
a.	1 mile	c.	25 minutes	
b.	0	d.	none of the above	

	39.	Speed is the ratio of the distance an object moves to
a.	the amount of time needed to travel the distance.	
b.	the direction the object moves.	
c.	the displacement of the object.	
d.	the motion of the object.	

	40.	Instantaneous speed is measured
a.	at the starting point.	
b.	when the object reaches its destination.	
c.	at a particular instant.	
d.	over the duration of the trip.	

	41.	A distance-time graph indicates that an object moves 100 m in 4 s and then remains at rest for 6 s. What is the average speed of the object?
a.	50 m/s	c.	10 m/s	
b.	25 m/s	d.	100 m/s	

	42.	The rate at which velocity changes is called
a.	speed.	c.	acceleration.	
b.	vectors.	d.	motion.	

	43.	The SI unit of force is the
a.	joule.	c.	meter.	
b.	kilogram.	d.	newton.	

	44.	The property of matter that resists changes in motion is called
a.	friction.	c.	inertia.	
b.	gravity.	d.	weight.	

	45.	According to Newton’s second law of motion, the acceleration of an object equals the net force acting on the object divided by the object’s
a.	mass.	c.	velocity.	
b.	momentum.	d.	weight.	

	46.	Newton’s third law of motion describes
a.	action and reaction forces.	c.	centripetal forces.	
b.	balanced forces.	d.	net force.	

	47.	What is the unit of work?
a.	joule	c.	watt	
b.	newton/meter	d.	all of the above	

	48.	If you exert a force of 10.0 N to lift a box a distance of 0.9 m, how much work do you do?
a.	0.1 J	c.	10.9 J	
b.	9.0 J	d.	90.0 J	

	49.	The SI unit of power is the
a.	joule.	c.	newton-meter.	
b.	newton.	d.	watt.	

	50.	A machine is a device that can multiply
a.	force.	c.	work.	
b.	power.	d.	all of the above	

	51.	A machine is classified as a compound machine if it
a.	has moving parts.	
b.	has an IMA greater than 1.	
c.	is made up of two or more simple machines that operate together.	
d.	is very efficient.	

	52.	The force a magnet exerts on another magnet, on iron or a similar metal, or on moving charges is
a.	an electric force.	
b.	a magnetic force.	
c.	proportional to the charge of the magnet.	
d.	proportional to the mass of the magnet.	

	53.	A ball is rolled uphill a distance of 5 meters before it slows, stops, and begins to roll back. The ball rolls downhill 9 meters before coming to rest against a tree. What is the magnitude of the ball’s displacement?
a.	4 meters	c.	14 meters	
b.	9 meters	d.	45 meters	

	54.	When an unbalanced force acts on an object,
a.	the object’s motion does not change.	c.	the weight of the object decreases.	
b.	the object accelerates.	d.	the inertia of the object increases.	

Short Answer

	55.	List the six simple machines.

Physical Science Final Exam
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

	1.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	1.1.1
STA:	I.I.I.9-12.3 | I.I.III.9-12.3 | III.I.I.9-12.1 | III.I.I.9-12.2 | III.I.I.9-12.3	

	2.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	1.1.3

	3.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	1.2.1
STA:	I.I.I.9-12.2

	4.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	1.2.2

	5.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	1.2.3
STA:	I.I.III.9-12.3

	6.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	1.3.4

	7.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	1.4.3
STA:	I.I.I.9-12.4

	8.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.1.2
STA:	II.I.I.9-12.1 | II.I.I.9-12.4

	9.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.1.2
STA:	II.I.I.9-12.1 | II.I.I.9-12.4

	10.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	2.1.2
STA:	II.I.I.9-12.1 | II.I.I.9-12.4

	11.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.1.5

	12.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	2.1.5

	13.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.2.1
STA:	II.I.I.9-12.2 | II.I.I.9-12.4

	14.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.2.2
STA:	II.I.I.9-12.2

	15.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	2.2.2
STA:	II.I.I.9-12.2

	16.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	2.3.1
STA:	II.I.I.9-12.2

	17.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	3.1.1
STA:	II.I.I.9-12.10

	18.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	3.1.2
STA:	II.I.I.9-12.1

	19.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	3.1.2
STA:	II.I.I.9-12.1

	20.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	3.2.1
STA:	II.I.III.9-12.4		

	21.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	3.2.2
STA:	II.I.III.9-12.4		

	22.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	3.2.4

	23.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	3.2.4

	24.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	3.2.5

	25.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	3.3.2
STA:	II.I.I.9-12.10

	26.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	4.1.3
STA:	III.I.I.9-12.10		

	27.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	4.1.3
STA:	III.I.I.9-12.10		

	28.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	4.1.3
STA:	III.I.I.9-12.10		

	29.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	4.2.1
STA:	II.I.I.9-12.6

	30.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	4.2.2

	31.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	4.2.2

	32.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	5.2.3
STA:	II.I.I.9-12.8

	33.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	5.3.2
STA:	II.I.I.9-12.8

	34.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	6.1.4
STA:	II.I.I.9-12.7.b		

	35.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	11.1.1
STA:	II.I.III.9-12.9		

	36.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	11.1.2

	37.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	11.1.2

	38.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	11.1.3
STA:	II.I.III.9-12.8.a		

	39.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	11.2.1

	40.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	11.2.2

	41.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	11.2.4
STA:	I.I.I.9-12.4.c

	42.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	11.3.1
STA:	II.I.III.9-12.8.a		

	43.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	12.1.1

	44.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	12.2.1

	45.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	12.2.2
STA:	II.I.III.9-12.8.b		

	46.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	12.3.1
STA:	II.I.III.9-12.7		

	47.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	14.1.2

	48.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	14.1.2

	49.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	14.1.3

	50.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	14.2.1

	51.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	L2	OBJ:	14.4.3

	52.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	21.1.1
STA:	II.I.III.9-12.5		

	53.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	11.1.4
STA:	II.I.III.9-12.8.a		

	54.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	L1	OBJ:	12.1.2
STA:	II.I.III.9-12.7 | II.I.III.9-12.8.b

SHORT ANSWER

	55.	ANS:	
Incline Plane, wheel and axle, wedge, screw, pulley, lever

PTS:	1